[hist-analytic] Reductive vs. Reductionist Analysis
Roger Bishop Jones
rbj at rbjones.com
Fri Feb 13 11:06:49 EST 2009
In response to Speranza pn the above twp questions come to my mind:
1. Is this a usage which Grice is coining?
2. Do we have any reason to believe that the distinction he
draws is absolute (objective)
The latter question because definite notions of type are confined
surely to certain formal languages, they differ on whether or how
types are assigned, and different formal translations of natural
languages in to formal languages are therefpre likely to yield
different answers to questions about whether an analysis is
reductionist or reductive.
Perhaps, as one deeply interested in the intricacies of natural
languages you might be able to comment on whether there is anything
like a rule for the use of the endings (or whatever they are called)
"tionist" and "tive" on the same root?
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