[hist-analytic] A Second Paradox of Analysis?

Jlsperanza at aol.com Jlsperanza at aol.com
Tue Jan 27 12:08:40 EST 2009


In a message dated 1/27/2009 11:30:32 A.M. Eastern Standard Time,  
rbj at rbjones.com writes:
In any case this would only establish that the  attribution of analyticity is 
necessary, not that it is analytic.

So  perhaps what we need is a label, 'self-analytic'. Mmm. Let's see.

Not  much luck. But an online paper by P. Subel reads:

"the language  describing [this] may be entrenched, or even self-entrenched 
in the sense just  described."

I tried 'auto-analytic' (recall that 'identity' and  'tautology' do play on 
the repetitive elements of the expressions, identity,  from 'idem', and 
'tautology' from 'tautos', the same, or very own). 


"Auto-analytical apparatus and analytical methods - Patent 3865549  
An auto-analytical machine for the analysis of liquid samples comprises, in  
combination, a reaction chamber, a sample reservoir for holding the sample to 
be  ...
www.freepatentsonline.com/3865549.html - Similar pages -
by Wellcome,  Found - 1975 - Cited by 3 - Related articles - All 2 versions."
 
It's a bit like the autological paradox.
 
(p) "p is not an analytic sentence" 
 
but
 
(q) "p is not an analytic sentence" or "p is an analytic sentence"
 
is, in a classic two-valued interpretation, thus analytic?
 
We should recall that for the Greeks fewer things were analytic than they  
are for some of us!
 
analytic, 
 
f. Gk. verb, "analuein," to unloose, undo (itself from "ana," up, back  + 
"luein" to loose), and in this way cognate with Latin verb "solvere" to  loosen, 
dissolve. (So Sp. and Pg. solver, It. solvere.). Not that the Latin 'u'  and 
'v' are identical, and thus, 'soluere' looks closer to the Greek.
 
Now this OED cite attempts an identification of 'unloosing' with  
'irresoluto', i.e. with a formation of 'solvere' plus a negative prefix,  'irre-':

1593 QUEEN ELIZABETH Boeth. III. met. ii. 46 Nature..strains with  vnlousing 
Knot [L. irresoluto nexu] eche thing.
 
This other OED quote provides 'unlosably' as meaning 'indissolubly':
 
1445 PECOCK Donet 214 More wo is to me at ei ben vnlosabli lettid..from e  
laboure of meditacioun.

This brings me to 'irresolution' which the OED traces as  "prob. from the 
French irrésolution (Montaigne, 16th c.), f. ir-  (IR-2) + résolution: cf. It. 
irresoluzione, -solutione (Florio, 1598)" and  defines as "want of resolution", 
"the condition of not having arrived at a  settled opinion on some subject."
 
So, oddly, it seems that while many analytic philosophers appeal to  
'analytic' only if they _have_ settled an opinion on some subject, the etymology  says 
precisely otherwise!
 
Cheers,
 
J. L. 

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