[hist-analytic] Conditional vs. Hypothetical
Jlsperanza at aol.com
Jlsperanza at aol.com
Mon Feb 15 08:02:02 EST 2010
In a message dated 2/15/2010 rh1 at york.ac.uk writes: ""The connected
proposition is true when it is not the case that it begins with the true and
ends with the false." (Philo cited by Sextus, Ad. Math. viii.113,
Loeb CL) (cfr. Bochenski, Hist. Form. Logic, 20.7). "Bochenski gives some
explanation about the avoidance of any word meaning `conditional'".
Thanks! Yes, one would have thought that Philo went to on "Laconic" side.
(Grice, otoh, would have provided a thesaurus list of at least five! Witness
his supplying his 'new' thing, the 'implicature': "It is clear that
whatever B IMPLIED, suggested, meant, ... is different form what B _said_"
(WoW:24). Now _this_ use of 'implied' I'm not concerned.
-My ref. to Dionysos was to see if the term was used by _grammarians_ then,
if not logicians. I would think they dubbed 'an' ("if") a syncategorema.
But I should have to look further. In any case, it may do to pay,
meanwhile, some consideration to the etymology of "conditio" as used in
'conditional' (to translate, if this is what it's supposed to be doing, the
hypothetical, but cfr. suppositio) -- and which does not seem to be a Graeco-Roman
term to me at all, on the face of it.
If you are puzzled by the 'dicio' in 'conditio-' is good ol' dic- as in
"Master dixit" (which I always, especially as it applies to Master = Grice, I
take to mean, The master inDICated (rather than plain, said). The ostensive
ring this brings must be the original 'implicatum' -- unless it was used
for Jesus Christ).
The "condition", then is just form the Latin, condicio (from "com-",
together + "dicere" "to speak" (see diction). (And thus more akin to the
syn-logism). The evolution of meaning through "stipulation, condition," (a verbal
agreement) to "situation, mode of being", which confusedly can be either
factual/actual or not.
Now, wiki lists the conjunctions for Modern Greek. For the three
Copulative: (Logician's "and") -- "και," "κι".
Separatist: (Logician's "or") -- "ή," "είτε"
Hypothetical (Logician's "if"): -- "αν", "εάν", "άμα", and "σαν"
But back to 'condition' to mean "situation". Is this redundant? The way
"condition" meant to indicate counterfactual explains why we license the below
as _non_-redundant: In a commentary on Rawls at _www.statemaster_
(http://www.statemaster) I read:
"the state of nature is used in social-contract theories to describe the
of humanity before the (institution of the contract)"
It's not, but one wonders. At least it's not a conjunctive addition.
(This may relate to that post by Aune, where he said
"By if I meant if, not iff"
---- which provoked a post by yours truly this forum where I regard that,
alla Horn, From if to iff (strenghening) it may be argued that the
Chrysippean implication comes out as a conversational (but no more than that)
implicatum of the Philonian implicatum (or something). I do mention Chrysippus
(Palaeo-Strawson here), but I mean merely the 'if' to 'iff' strenghening as
conversationally implicated. I drop onto the bargain the idea that the
'then', as used in if-then clauses kills Philo as it were (for Grice). Etc.
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